NEET 2027 Biology Question Paper: 90 High-Yield MCQs for Chapter 1 'The Living World' (100% NCERT-Based)
Keywords: NEET 2027 Practice Paper, NEET Biology MCQ Chapter 1, NCERT The Living World Test, NEET Rank Predictor, Best Mock Test for NEET UG
ð Examination Blueprint & Marking Protocol
| ✔️ Correct Response: | +4 Marks |
| ❌ Incorrect Attempt: | -1 Mark (Negative Marking) |
| ⚪ Unanswered Items: | 0 Marks |
| ð Question Count: | 90 Questions (Strictly from Chapter 1 Source) |
ðĄ Interactive Mode Active: Read each question, choose your option mentally, and click the drop-down tray below it to get instant feedback and comprehensive conceptual analysis.
ð SECTION I: High-Yield Conceptual MCQs
Q1. According to the text, what specific revelation led to cultural movements for the conservation of biodiversity?
(A) Finding missing links in morphological fossil records
(B) The revelation that all present-day organisms are related horizontally and vertically to each other and to all organisms that ever lived
(C) Quantifying the exact number of species residing in tropical rainforest habitats
(D) Generating synthetic life formats using artificial cellular components
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The text explicitly highlights that the horizontal and vertical connections between living entities humbled humanity and sparked conservation values.
Q2. Twin characteristics of growth as stated in the text are:
(A) Increase in mass and differentiation of tissues
(B) Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals
(C) Development of metabolic enzymes and cellular response
(D) Production of spores and elongation of cells
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The increase in mass and individual count form the foundational twin parameters of biological growth.
Q3. In majority of higher plants and animals, growth and reproduction are:
(A) Mutually inclusive events
(B) Mutually exclusive events
(C) Synonymous conditions across all lifespans
(D) Metabolic anomalies unlinked to cell division
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Higher multicellular organisms show growth and reproduction as separate, distinct physiological processes (mutually exclusive).
Q4. Why cannot non-living objects show growth from within their core structural bodies?
(A) They show continuous transcription and translation flaws
(B) Their growth is purely an accumulation of materials on their outer surface
(C) They lack spatial configurations for atomic mass variation
(D) They fail to dissolve organic solvents
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Surface accumulation defines non-living mass expansion, unlike intrinsic biological growth.
Q5. For which taxonomic group of organisms are the concepts of growth and reproduction completely synonymous?
(A) Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms
(B) Filamentous algae and moss protonema
(C) Unicellular organisms like bacteria, unicellular algae, or Amoeba
(D) Multicellular higher fungi and insect classes
ð Check Answer
Explanation: In unicellular species, an increase in cellular count represents both cell division (growth) and reproduction.
Q6. Fungi multiply and spread easily due to the production of millions of:
(A) Binary fission splits
(B) Asexual spores
(C) Vegetative runners
(D) Conjugation ducts
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Production of asexual spores is the primary driver for widespread rapid fungal multiplication.
Q7. True regeneration, where a fragmented organism regenerates the lost part of its body and becomes a new organism, is observed in:
(A) Planaria (flatworms)
(B) Mango taproots
(C) Housefly maggots
(D) Unicellular yeast structures
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Planaria exhibit an extraordinary capability for morphallactic true regeneration as recorded in the text.
Q8. Which specific entities do not reproduce at all, making reproduction a non-inclusive defining character of life?
(A) Spores of molds
(B) Mules, sterile worker bees, and infertile human couples
(C) Budding colonies of Hydra
(D) Unicellular cyanobacteria strands
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Because sterile worker bees, mules, and infertile human couples exist, reproduction cannot be a universal absolute defining criterion.
Q9. Which of the following accurately describes metabolism based on the provided text?
(A) A process limited exclusively to eukaryotic organisms
(B) The sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in a living body
(C) Extracellular structural degeneration inside geological layers
(D) Isolated metabolic transformations occurring within an inanimate test tube
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Metabolism is the total set of cellular chemical conversions running within a biological environment.
Q10. Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro performed inside a laboratory test-tube are considered:
(A) Living organisms
(B) Non-living reactions
(C) Not living organisms but definitely living reactions
(D) Purely mechanical simulations
ð Check Answer
Explanation: In vitro reactions lack the cellular framework to be classified as independent living organisms, yet they are living reactions.
Q11. What is the absolute defining feature of all living forms without any exception?
(A) Growth in external surface parameters
(B) Ability to undergo structural budding
(C) Cellular organization of the body
(D) Locomotion using flagella
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Cellular organization is an exceptional, non-negotiable architectural requirement of all biological life.
Q12. What parameter makes consciousness the most technically complicated feature of living organisms?
(A) The inability to map nervous responses
(B) The capacity to perceive and respond to external environmental stimuli (physical, chemical, or biological)
(C) The production of high-energy chemical bonds
(D) Spontaneous mutations occurring during cell cycles
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The ability to actively sense and execute calculated behavioral responses to environmental triggers highlights consciousness.
Q13. Photoperiod influences reproduction in which category of organisms according to the text?
(A) Continuous breeders exclusive to deep oceans
(B) Seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
(C) Viruses lacking genomic structures
(D) Anaerobic standard decomposers
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Daylength variations regulate seasonal reproductive actions in both plant and animal kingdoms.
Q14. Self-consciousness is an exclusive distinct property observed solely in:
(A) Higher angiosperms
(B) Human beings
(C) Fungal mycelia networks
(D) Sponges and coelenterates
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Only humans possess the internal capacity to evaluate themselves abstractly (self-consciousness).
Q15. Properties of tissues are not present in the constituent cells but arise as a result of:
(A) Accumulation of high atomic weight minerals
(B) Interactions among the constituent cells
(C) Breakdown of mitochondrial metabolic matrix
(D) Cytoplasmic streaming parameters in a vacuum
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Emergent traits of higher levels manifest due to the underlying functional intersections of parts.
Q16. Properties of cellular organelles emerge from:
(A) Membrane-bound internal ionic fluids
(B) Molecular interactions among the molecular constituents comprising the organelle
(C) The size of the nucleus controlling them
(D) Free-floating thermodynamic energy fields
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Complex macromolecular networks inside the organelle generate its specific physiological functions.
Q17. Living organisms are described in the summary framework as:
(A) Static non-evolving configurations in thermodynamic equilibrium
(B) Self-replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli
(C) Isolated chemical clusters unable to change across generations
(D) Extracellular crystals displaying synthetic internal metabolic rates
ð Check Answer
Explanation: This comprehensive description incorporates adaptative, homeostatic, and responsive factors.
Q18. The total range of dynamic species recorded across global data maps currently stands at approximately:
(A) 5.0 - 7.5 million
(B) 1.7 - 1.8 million
(C) 10 - 12 million
(D) 0.5 - 0.8 million
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Scientifically identified global biodiversity stands at 1.7 to 1.8 million species.
Q19. The system of standardizing the naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the world is called:
(A) Stratification
(B) Nomenclature
(C) Normalization
(D) Internal Identification
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Nomenclature establishes global naming consistency to eliminate regional vernacular confusion.
Q20. Nomenclature is only possible when the organism is described correctly and we know to what organism the name is attached to. This baseline step is called:
(A) Systematization
(B) Taxon mapping
(C) Identification
(D) Binomial indexation
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Identification determines whether a specimen matches a known, established profile.
Q21. For plants, scientific principles and criteria for naming are provided by which organization?
(A) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
(B) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN)
(C) Indian Bureau of Botanical Nomenclature
(D) Imperial Council of Biological Names
ð Check Answer
Explanation: ICBN governs the nomenclature system for the botanical world.
Q22. Animal taxonomists have established structural naming codes under the banner of:
(A) ICBN
(B) ICZN (International Code of Zoological Nomenclature)
(C) Association of Animal Anatomy
(D) Global Zoological Index
ð Check Answer
Explanation: ICZN is the standard regulatory architecture for assigning valid animal scientific names.
Q23. Biologists follow universally accepted principles to provide scientific names. Each name has two components:
(A) Phylum identifier and Order code
(B) The Generic name and the Specific epithet
(C) Family title and Author initials
(D) Domain label and Class category
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Binomial nomenclature requires a dual setup: genus first, followed by the specific epithet.
Q24. This system of providing a name with two components is called Binomial Nomenclature and was proposed by:
(A) Ernst Mayr
(B) Carolus Linnaeus
(C) R.H. Whittaker
(D) Georges Cuvier
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Carolus Linnaeus institutionalized binomial formatting, which remains globally standard.
Q25. Biological names are generally written or derived from which language, irrespective of their origin?
(A) Greek
(B) Latin
(C) Sanskrit
(D) French
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Biological names are traditionally Latinized because Latin serves as an invariant dead language.
Q26. When biological names are printed, they must be formatted in:
(A) Bold typeface
(B) Italics
(C) Underlining strings
(D) Fully capitalized script
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Italics are explicitly required in typography to signify their non-English, Latin lineage.
Q27. The first word in a biological name represents the ________ while the second component denotes the ________.
(A) Class, Order
(B) Genus, Specific epithet
(C) Species, Family
(D) Phylum, Kingdom
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Genus leads the sequence, with the specific epithet providing narrow designation.
Q28. In the scientific name Mangifera indica Linn, what does 'Linn' indicate?
(A) The sub-tropical locality where it thrives
(B) That the species was originally described by Linnaeus
(C) The specific structural variety of mango fruit
(D) A Latin translation for juice density
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Author citation appended at the end credit the taxonomist who established the species description.
Q29. Since it is nearly impossible to study all living organisms, what process is used to group them into convenient categories based on easily observable characters?
(A) Denaturation
(B) Classification
(C) Inbreeding
(D) Electrophoresis
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Classification systematizes massive numbers of organisms into manageable slots.
Q30. What scientific term is used to describe the objective biological categories or ranks at any level?
(A) Clades
(B) Taxa (singular: Taxon)
(C) Cohorts
(D) Matrices
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Taxon designates a concrete biological unit of any rank in structural taxonomy.
Q31. Which of the following is NOT listed in the text as form of characters that form the basis of modern taxonomic studies?
(A) External and internal structure
(B) Structure of cell and development process
(C) Ecological information of organisms
(D) Commercial retail value of metabolic isolates
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Commercial asset worth holds no scientific validation for setting taxonomic profiles.
Q32. What is the fundamental chronological sequence of processes that are basic to taxonomy?
(A) Classification -> Nomenclature -> Identification -> Preservation
(B) Characterisation -> Identification -> Classification -> Nomenclature
(C) Nomenclature -> Isolation -> Selection -> Pairing
(D) Identification -> Sorting -> Breeding -> Dispersing
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Taxonomists first establish traits (characterization) before moving through matching identity, slotting, and naming.
Q33. Human beings were, since long, not only interested in knowing more about different kinds of organisms and their diversities, but also the relationships among them. This branch of study is referred to as:
(A) Cytotaxonomy
(B) Systematics
(C) Pure Anatomy
(D) Histology
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Systematics focuses on taxonomy while accounting for evolutionary relationships.
Q34. The word 'Systematics' is derived from which Latin word, and what does it signify?
(A) 'SystÃĻme' meaning organic chemical breakdown
(B) 'Systema' meaning systematic arrangement of organisms
(C) 'Sustentio' meaning internal cellular metabolic maintenance
(D) 'Symptoma' meaning diagnostic clinical pathology
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Derived from 'Systema', it implies organizing life forms methodically.
Q35. Linnaeus used which specific title for the publication of his monumental work?
(A) Genera Plantarum
(B) Systema Naturae
(C) Origin of Species
(D) Historia Animalium
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Linnaeus titled his seminal classic layout compilation Systema Naturae.
Q36. Systematics later expanded its scope to include which additional conceptual parameter?
(A) Soil composition variations
(B) Evolutionary relationships among organisms
(C) Industrial chemical application rates
(D) Atmospheric pressure data tracking
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Modern systematics heavily incorporates phylogenetic histories alongside morphological classifications.
Q37. The framework where classification involves a hierarchy of steps in which each step represents a rank or category is called:
(A) Linear grouping
(B) Taxonomic hierarchy
(C) Symmetrical matrix sorting
(D) Binomial division
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Every singular tier in taxonomic hierarchy fits as an objective taxonomical slot.
Q38. Each taxonomic category, representing a unit of classification, actually demonstrates a:
(A) Abstract mathematical projection lacking physical reality
(B) Taxon
(C) Arbitrary casual colloquial phrase
(D) Pure anatomical chemical bond
ð Check Answer
Explanation: A category at any structural tier materializes practically as a taxon.
Q39. Taxonomic groups or categories are:
(A) Merely morphological aggregates without structural separation
(B) Distinct biological entities and not merely morphological aggregates
(C) Imaginary lines generated for digital indexing software
(D) Fluid groupings that change with daily weather shifts
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Categories signify concrete structural and biological groupings, not superficial cluster choices.
Q40. Taxonomic studies of all known organisms have led to the development of common categories. Which of the following represents the lowest category in the hierarchical setup?
(A) Kingdom
(B) Family
(C) Species
(D) Genus
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Species acts as the basic, fundamental category at the base of the taxonomic hierarchy.
Q41. Taxonomic studies consider a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities as a:
(A) Division
(B) Species
(C) Order
(D) Class
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Organisms possessing structural and reproductive overlap form a distinct species.
Q42. One should be able to distinguish one species from the other closely related species based on:
(A) Total chromosomal base pair length calculations
(B) Distinct morphological differences
(C) Geographic longitude parameters
(D) Life expectancy projections
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Observable, discrete morphological variations are the primary diagnostic tool used to separate sister species.
Q43. In scientific naming alignments, Solanum represents the ________ tier while tuberosum designates the ________ component.
(A) Order, Family
(B) Genus, Specific epithet
(C) Phylum, Class
(D) Species, Genus
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Solanum is the generic genus group; tuberosum isolates the potato specifier.
Q44. Lion, leopard, and tiger are all species belonging to which common genus?
(A) Felis
(B) Panthera
(C) Canis
(D) Vulpes
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The genus Panthera contains large wild cats: P. leo, P. pardus, and P. tigris.
Q45. The genus Solanum includes species such as tuberosum (potato) and which of the following?
(A) indica
(B) nigrum and melongena
(C) sativum
(D) domestica
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Solanum nigrum (makoi) and Solanum melongena (brinjal) share the same genus under NCERT definitions.
Q46. Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species of other:
(A) Kingdoms
(B) Genera
(C) Phyla
(D) Domains
ð Check Answer
Explanation: A genus groups tightly linked species together, differentiating them from other general genera.
Q47. The genus Felis comprises which category of animals?
(A) Wild wolves
(B) Cats
(C) Domestic dogs
(D) Monkeys
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Felis is the formal taxonomic genus that accommodates small cat configurations.
Q48. The next category, Family, has a group of related genera with still ________ number of similarities as compared to genus and species.
(A) Higher
(B) Less
(C) Zero
(D) Infinite
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Moving up the hierarchy reduces the count of shared diagnostic characteristics.
Q49. Plant families are characterized on the basis of which features of plant species?
(A) Only vegetative features
(B) Only anatomical bark layers
(C) Both vegetative and reproductive features of plants
(D) Exclusively pollen molecular weights
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Botanical family classification tracks both structural vegetative growth and floral/reproductive structures.
Q50. Which three distinct genera are placed together inside the plant family Solanaceae?
(A) Mangifera, Triticum, Pisum
(B) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura
(C) Rosa, Oryza, Hibiscus
(D) Ficus, Pinus, Agaricus
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are grouped under Solanaceae due to their structural similarities.
Q51. Among animals, genus Panthera and genus Felis are brought together inside which taxonomic family?
(A) Canidae
(B) Felidae
(C) Hominidae
(D) Muscidae
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Felidae accommodates wild big cats along with small domestic cat types.
Q52. If you observe the external characteristics of a dog and a cat, you will locate that they are separated into two distinct families respectively:
(A) Felidae and Solanaceae
(B) Felidae and Canidae
(C) Hominidae and Poaceae
(D) Muscidae and Diptera
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Cats belong to Felidae, while dogs are classified under Canidae.
Q53. Categories like species, genus and families are based on a number of similar characters. Generally, higher taxonomic categories like Order are identified based on:
(A) Single isolated cellular dimension parameter
(B) Aggregates of characters
(C) Geographic localization points
(D) Lifespan duration index
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Order and higher levels use character aggregates to establish broad taxonomic alignments.
Q54. Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in which specific Order, mainly based on floral characters?
(A) Poales
(B) Polymoniales
(C) Sapindales
(D) Primata
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The order Polymoniales includes Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae based on floral traits.
Q55. The animal Order Carnivora includes families like:
(A) Solanaceae and Liliaceae
(B) Felidae and Canidae
(C) Muscidae and Hominidae
(D) Poaceae and Anacardiaceae
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Carnivora groups predatory mammal lineages like cats (Felidae) and dogs (Canidae).
ð SECTION II: Advanced Statement-Based Questions (15% - 20% Allocation)
Q56. Evaluate the two structural logic statements below:
Statement I: Biological description of organisms including human beings began very early in human history long before anthropocentric phases.
Statement II: Societies which indulged in an anthropocentric view of biology could register only limited progress in biological knowledge.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Statement I is false because the description of living entities began much later in human history, as stated in the text.
Q57. Examine the following two statements:
Statement I: In plants, growth by cell division occurs continuously throughout their lifespan.
Statement II: In animals, growth is observed only up to a certain age.
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Both statements are false
(C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Plants retain indeterminate meristematic cell division potential, while animal growth is deterministic.
Q58. Examine the following two statements:
Statement I: Cell division can be observed in vitro by simply counting cells under the microscope.
Statement II: This simple in vitro observation method cannot be used to study unicellular organisms.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Statement II is incorrect because in vitro microscope counting is a standard method used to study unicellular growth curves.
Q59. Evaluate the validity of these lines:
Statement I: Non-living objects exhibit growth if we take increase in body mass as a criterion.
Statement II: Mountains, boulders and sand mounds do not grow because they are inanimate.
(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(C) Both statements are correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Mountains and boulders do exhibit external growth through accretion, meaning Statement II is false.
Q60. Assess the two statements below:
Statement I: Growth cannot be taken as a defining property of living organisms.
Statement II: A dead organism continues to grow intrinsically from its cellular center.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Dead organisms completely cease all biological growth.
Q61. Review these factual parameters:
Statement I: Filamentous algae, protonema of mosses, and fungi all easily multiply by fragmentation.
Statement II: Fragmentation is a type of sexual gametic combination.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Fragmentation is an asexual process that does not involve gametes.
Q62. Evaluate these statements on metabolism:
Statement I: No non-living object exhibits metabolism.
Statement II: Metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in cell-free systems.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both statements are false
(C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, Statement II is correct
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both statements align perfectly with the definitions provided in the text.
Q63. Analyze the two statements below:
Statement I: All organisms, from prokaryotes to the most complex eukaryotes, can sense and respond to environmental cues.
Statement II: Prokaryotes lack consciousness because they do not possess membrane-bound nuclei.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Prokaryotes are conscious and actively respond to chemical or physical stimuli in their surroundings.
Q64. Assess the following statements about human clinical states:
Statement I: A patient lying in a coma in a hospital supported by machines is completely dead.
Statement II: Such comatose patients have no self-consciousness.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Comatose patients are brain-dead but medically living, and they lack self-consciousness.
Q65. Read the following statement parameters:
Statement I: Universal rules of nomenclature mandate that the first word identifying the genus starts with a capital letter.
Statement II: The specific epithet starts with a capital letter if it is named after a geolocational country.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The specific epithet always starts with a lowercase letter, without exception.
Q66. Evaluate these taxonomic hierarchy statements:
Statement I: Species is the lowest rank while Kingdom is the highest category in the standard hierarchy.
Statement II: For plants, the term 'Phylum' is utilized, whereas for animals, the category 'Division' is used.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Statement II is reversed: plants use 'Division' while animals use 'Phylum'.
Q67. Read the following statements:
Statement I: Potato and brinjal belong to two completely separate and unrelated plant genera.
Statement II: Both potato and brinjal belong to the common genus Solanum.
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(C) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
(D) Both statements are false
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both species share the common genus Solanum as per standard NCERT listings.
Q68. Evaluate these category trends:
Statement I: As we go higher from species to kingdom, the number of common characteristics goes on decreasing.
Statement II: Lower the taxa, more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both statements describe the classic inverse relationship between taxonomic height and characteristic sharing.
Q69. Assess these classification properties:
Statement I: Families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are placed in order Polymoniales based on vegetative characters.
Statement II: Order Polymoniales is established mainly based on floral characters.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
(D) Both statements are incorrect
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Statement I is false because order Polymoniales is defined by reproductive floral traits rather than vegetative ones.
Q70. Read these statements about domestic organisms:
Statement I: The housefly belongs to the order Diptera and class Insecta.
Statement II: The housefly belongs to the family Muscidae.
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Both statements are false
(C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both lines are completely accurate as per the data parameters in Table 1.1.
Q71. Evaluate these crop parameters:
Statement I: Mango belongs to the family Anacardiaceae and order Sapindales.
Statement II: Wheat belongs to the family Poaceae and order Poales.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both classifications are explicitly stated in the taxonomic reference chart.
Q72. Review these class parameters:
Statement I: Mango is an example of a Monocotyldonae plant.
Statement II: Wheat is classified under Dicotyledonae class.
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The text specifies that Mango is a Dicotyledonae plant, while Wheat is a Monocotyledonae crop.
ð SECTION III: High-Yield Assertion-Reason Questions (10% - 15% Allocation)
Directions: Choose option (A) if both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation. Choose (B) if both are true but Reason is not the explanation. Choose (C) if Assertion is true but Reason is false. Choose (D) if Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Q73.
Assertion (A): Growth cannot be taken as an all-inclusive defining property of living organisms.
Reason (R): Non-living objects also grow if we take increase in body mass as a criterion.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Because surface accretion causes non-living objects to gain mass, mass growth cannot serve as an exclusive lifecycle identifier.
Q74.
Assertion (A): In unicellular organisms, we are not very clear about the usage of these two terms — growth and reproduction.
Reason (R): In single-celled species, cell division results directly in the multiplication of individual counts.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Because cell replication doubles the population, growth and reproduction are synonymous terms in single-celled life forms.
Q75.
Assertion (A): Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organisms without exception.
Reason (R): Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro in a laboratory are fully functional living organisms.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The assertion is true, but the reason is false because cell-free laboratory reactions are living reactions, not complete living organisms.
Q76.
Assertion (A): Cellular organization of the body is the defining feature of life forms.
Reason (R): All chemical activities inside a living being are coordinated within a cellular framework.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The cellular structure provides the essential biochemical architecture required to run internal metabolic cascades.
Q77.
Assertion (A): Human beings are the only organisms who possess self-consciousness.
Reason (R): Humans are aware of themselves and possess complex cognitive nervous systems.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both statements are correct, and the presence of self-awareness explains why humans alone exhibit self-consciousness.
Q78.
Assertion (A): Biological names are always written in local vernacular languages when printed.
Reason (R): Naming systems must change across geographical boundaries to keep up with regional dialects.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both statements are false; names are always Latinized and kept invariant worldwide to prevent local dialect errors.
Q79.
Assertion (A): The scientific name of mango is written as Mangifera indica.
Reason (R): In this binomial nomenclature format, Mangifera represents the specific epithet.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The assertion is true, but the reason is false because Mangifera represents the generic genus name, not the specific epithet.
Q80.
Assertion (A): Classification is an essential exercise to study the vast diversity of living entities.
Reason (R): It is impossible to study every individual organism across a group of 1.7-1.8 million species without structured groupings.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The immense volume of distinct species requires a structured grouping framework to make biological study feasible.
Q81.
Assertion (A): Systematics takes into account evolutionary relationships between organisms.
Reason (R): The word systematics is derived from the Greek word 'systema' which means random scattering.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The assertion is true, but the reason is false because 'Systema' is a Latin word that means orderly arrangement, not random scattering.
Q82.
Assertion (A): Taxonomic categories are not merely abstract morphological aggregates.
Reason (R): Each taxonomic category represents a real, distinct biological entity occupying a specific rank.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Categories align with actual physiological and reproductive units, giving them true biological validity.
Q83.
Assertion (A): Species is considered the fundamental, lowest category in taxonomic studies.
Reason (R): A species is a group of individual organisms with fundamental morphological similarities.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both statements are true, but the definition of similarities does not explain its structural position at the base of the hierarchical tree.
Q84.
Assertion (A): Genera like Panthera (lion, tiger) are placed alongside Felis (cats) inside the family Felidae.
Reason (R): Felidae and Canidae share completely identical features without any anatomical differences.
ð Check Answer
Explanation: The assertion is true, but the reason is false because Felidae (cats) and Canidae (dogs) are distinct families with clear anatomical differences.
ð SECTION IV: Multi-Tier Matrix N-Block Matching Sets
Q85. Match the following taxonomic parameters with their biological description components:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Ernst Mayr | (i) Triple Crown of Biology winner |
| (b) Linnaeus | (ii) Systema Naturae author |
| (c) Dead Organism | (iii) Does not exhibit any intrinsic growth |
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(B) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i)
ð Check Answer
Explanation: All pairings match their directly stated descriptions in the chapter introduction text.
Q86. Match the specific organisms with their structural Taxonomic Family designations:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Man | (i) Hominidae |
| (b) Housefly | (ii) Muscidae |
| (c) Mango | (iii) Anacardiaceae |
| (d) Wheat | (iv) Poaceae |
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(B) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
ð Check Answer
Explanation: This layout accurately maps the family names for each organism according to Table 1.1.
Q87. Match the organisms with their structural Taxonomic Order designations:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Man | (i) Primata |
| (b) Housefly | (ii) Diptera |
| (c) Mango | (iii) Sapindales |
| (d) Wheat | (iv) Poales |
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(B) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
ð Check Answer
Explanation: This maps the correct biological order pathways for these four reference species.
Q88. Match the organisms with their structural Class configurations:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Man | (i) Mammalia |
| (b) Housefly | (ii) Insecta |
| (c) Mango | (iii) Dicotyledonae |
| (d) Wheat | (iv) Monocotyledonae |
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(B) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Direct mapping matches standard NCERT classification criteria.
Q89. Match the organisms with their high-level Phylum or Division settings:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Man | (i) Chordata |
| (b) Housefly | (ii) Arthropoda |
| (c) Mango | (iii) Angiospermae |
| (d) Wheat | (iv) Angiospermae |
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(B) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
ð Check Answer
Explanation: Both plants are flowering angiosperms, while the animal classifications follow standard high-level groupings.
Q90. Match the descriptive binomial formatting values with their functional rule constraints:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Handwritten names | (i) Must be separately underlined |
| (b) Printed format | (ii) Set in italics to indicate Latin origin |
| (c) Genus word | (iii) Must start with a capital letter |
(A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
(B) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)
ð Check Answer
Explanation: These parameters represent the foundational rules of binomial nomenclature.
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